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No Fault insurance question
Posted: Mon Sep 19, 2011 6:49 am
by John J90
Driver A and Driver B both reside in a state with no-fault insurance.
Scenario 1: Driver A causes a car accident with B's car and both cars are damaged. Would A's insurance pay for the damages to both cars?
Scenario 2: Driver A causes a car accident with B's car and causes physical injury to both A and B. Would A's insurance pay for medical expenses for both A and B?
Thanks!
Re: No Fault insurance question
Posted: Mon Sep 19, 2011 11:25 am
by kfrasier
I'm in Kentucky and the no-fault/PIP is an injury coverage. It has nothing to do with damages to the vehicle. This is so if you are hurt you don't have to wait to get your medical bills paid by the other company. Your company will go ahead and pay them under your policy. Then they can go back against the other company at a later time but you don't have to wait and risk being turned over to collections because they haven't been paid.
Re: No Fault insurance question
Posted: Mon Sep 19, 2011 11:30 am
by BKCPCU
John J90, you need to study up on your state's no-fault laws if you are out marketing auto insurance. It's pretty critical that you know how the coverage works.
Scenario 1 involving damage to the autos has nothing to do with a no-fault law's coverage. The damage to B's car would be paid by A's Property Damage Liablity coverage, assuming adequate limits. A is on his own unless his car has Collision coverage.
In Scenario 2 A's no-fault coverage would will provide A with no-fault benefits from his own policy. A's Bodily injury Liability coverage would pay B's medical if B's medical bills exceed the state's threshold for a BI claim. Otherwise B collects for his injuries under his own no-fault coverage only.